JesseM said:
Not using the theory of gravity (general relativity) that is now thought to be the most accurate one, though...do other theories predict precisely the same amount of light deflection as general relativity? (
edit: I just checked this, and general relativity does indeed predict a different amount of light deflection than Newtonian theory--
this wikipedia page says 'According to the general theory of relativity, stars near the Sun would appear to have been slightly shifted because their light had been curved by its gravitational field. This effect is noticeable only during an eclipse, since otherwise the Sun's brightness obscures the stars.
Newtonian gravitation predicted half the shift of general relativity.' And the scientist you mention, Johann von Soldner, was calculating the Newtonian deflection according to
this page.) And of course, general relativity can explain plenty of other things that aren't explained by other theories, like the precession of the perihelion of Mercury's orbit and the expansion of the universe. Whatever questions there are about whether SR should be uniquely attributed to Einstein, are there any doubts that GR should? General relativity is usually considered his greatest achievement.
Yes, but I said that it was not generally said that light deflection is not a pure GR effect. In almost every book contributing to Einteinian myth is claimed that GR predicts light deflection, which is true, but it is also predicted by other theories. Moreover the typical “layman-like” figure of a beautiful Sun, a spatially curved grid around it and a curved light trajectory is
false. Since Newtonian theory already predicts the half of total deflection using a flat spacetime (and that, of course, even ignoring that GR really says about light deflection).
See my post #26
Juan R. said:
The problem is that with standard Newtonian force one obtains half the experimental value.
But one is not forced to use original Newton potential as Soldner did. Now I don’t remember value obtained for Tisserand (18??) force, but I remember that Raguza force predicts the same value that GR for light deflection.
In a letter 18 November, 1915, Einstein wrote
Einstein said:
Dear Colleague,
The system you furnish agrees — as far as I can see — exactly with
what I found in the last few weeks and have presented to the Academy. The difficulty was not in finding generally covariant equations for the gµν ’s; for this is easily achieved with the aid of Riemann’s tensor. Rather, it was hard to recognize that these equations are a generalization, that is, simple and natural generalization of Newton’s law. It has just been in the last few weeks that I succeeded in this (I sent you my communications), whereas 3 years ago with my friend Grossmann I had already taken into consideration the only possible generally covariant equations, which have now been shown to be the correct ones. We had only heavy-heartedly distanced ourselves from it, because it seemed to me that the physical discussion yielded an incongruency with Newton’s law. The important thing is that the difficulties have now been overcome. Today I am presenting to the Academy a paper in which I derive quantitatively out of general relativity, without any guiding hypothesis, the perihelion motion of Mercury discovered by Le Verrier. No gravitation theory had achieved this until now.
yours
Einstein
As said in forum in gravitation those other things supposedly “explained” by GR can be obtained from other approaches. Tisserand already obtained around 3/8 of then known Mercury perihelion but full value can be obtained, for example, it was obtained by Levy in 1890.
That is, contrary to the
MYTH, Einstein was not pioneer in much stuff.
I studied SR history with rather detail and was not his achievement. I do not studied GR history in detail still but I suspect (only suspect, cannot show it now) that GR is not completely from Einstein. For example, traditionally history (e.g. Pais book) claimed that neither Hilbert nor Einstein knew Bianchi identity and that was obtain by Weyl in 1917. Some recent work (L.Corry, J.Renn and J. Stachel. Belated Decision in the Hilbert–Einstein Priority Dispute. Science. 278, 1270 (1997).) even suggest that Einstein derived all of GR. But that article (by physicists,
no conspiracy ones, of course, just those ignoring data, misinterpreting phrases, hidding papers, etc, etc,

) has been classified as nonsense by historians.
It has been recently shown that Hilbert derived Bianchi identity in a 1915 paper and Einstein did know it even in 1917. It appears clear now for historians that Hilbert derived first the gravitational field equations of GR without help or knowledge of Einstein.
JesseM said:
No physicist before Einstein derived E=mc^2 as applying generally, any earlier appearances of the formula were only meant to apply to fairly specific situations, like the recoil from an incoming electromagnetic wave in Poincaré's derivation. And I wasn't aware that the equation had appeared anywhere in Lorentz's work, do you have a reference for that?
I am not completely sure. It appears that the use of E=mc^2 was already implicitly used 25 years before Einstein paper. Moreover in his 1905 paper, Einstein acknowledges that his deduction of E=mc^2 was explicitly based on "Maxwell's expression for the electromagnetic energy of space". That is, at the best, Einstein said,
“take this formula, its application is not only electromagnetic, it is more general”.
But, he did not discover it and the revolutionary idea of equivalence between mass and energy (as claimed by popular press)
was already known. I now could claim (it is a example) that Schrödinger wave equation also apply to Solar system orbits (as a gigantic atom, it is just an example). But popular press could not say that Schrodinger equation is my invention and that duality wave-particle was revolutionary because now it is already known.
I said “at the best”, because it appears that recently it is thought that first suggesting general sense for E = mc^2 was H. Poincaré in 1900. Moreover, it is not clear that Einstein thought that E = mc^2 was general. His “proof” (a posteriori shown wrong by Ives in 1952) was applied to a specific case only. I waste many time searching references but I did an effort and I found derivation of mass variation formula was given by Lorentz on
Amst. Proc. vi (1904) p. 809.
JesseM said:
What was their basis for saying nothing could exceed the speed of light? I bet none of them realized that FTL could lead to the possibility of sending information backwards in time (causality violation), for example.
They derived the telegraphy equation for electromagnetic signals, which is signed hyperbolic (no parabolic). Moreover, they obtained initially that c
W was the maximum speed possible. That was not speed of light but as I said their work was improved after for c.