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[SOLVED] A problem based on Fubini's theorem
Let [tex]1<p<+\infty[/tex] and [tex]f:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow [0,
+\infty[[/tex] a measurable function. Set
[tex]f_n=\inf \{f,n\}\mathbb{I}_{[-n,n]\times [-n,n]}[/tex]
and
[tex]F_n(x)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f_n(x,y)dy[/tex]
Show that
[tex]\left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}F_n(x)^p dx\right)^{1/p}\leq\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f_n(x,y)^pdx \right)^{1/p}dy[/tex]
In a somewhat different language, we are asked to show that
[tex]||F_n||_p\leq \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}||f_n||_pdy[/tex]
Aside from this sad recasting of the problem, I have no lead!
Homework Statement
Let [tex]1<p<+\infty[/tex] and [tex]f:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow [0,
+\infty[[/tex] a measurable function. Set
[tex]f_n=\inf \{f,n\}\mathbb{I}_{[-n,n]\times [-n,n]}[/tex]
and
[tex]F_n(x)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f_n(x,y)dy[/tex]
Show that
[tex]\left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}F_n(x)^p dx\right)^{1/p}\leq\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f_n(x,y)^pdx \right)^{1/p}dy[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
In a somewhat different language, we are asked to show that
[tex]||F_n||_p\leq \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}||f_n||_pdy[/tex]
Aside from this sad recasting of the problem, I have no lead!