Conjecture: There exists no number k s.t. k^2+2 is a multiple of 7

In summary, Chris is asking for help in finding an infinite number of counterexamples to the statement "7n+2" is a perfect square. He has tried to find a specific number that would satisfy the conditions, but has come across a roadblock. He has asked for suggestions and has received a proof by induction to help him continue his search.
  • #1
middleCmusic
74
0
Hey everyone,

I was doing a problem in my Discrete Mathematics book and it called for finding an infinite number of counterexamples to the statement "7n+2" is a perfect square (which fails for n=3 at least).

In my search for such an infinite counterexample, I tried to find A, n=n(k,A), such that 7n+2=49k2-A2 for some A, and for all k. Then, I would be able to say that for n of the form, n=(k,A), where A is some fixed number, 7n+2=49k2-A2, which is a perfect square (7k)2 minus the fixed number A2. Clearly, if you can find this then you're done because squares will get large enough that the distance between them is more than A2, and thus, for a large enough n, 7n+2=49k2-A2 would not be a perfect square, as the next lowest square would be more than A2 away.

Anyway, in my search for this number, I let n be a quadratic function of k, n = xk2+yk+z for some fixed integers x, y, z to be determined, and from there I got these equations:

7(xk2+yk+z)+2=49k2-A2, which gives

7x=49 => x=7
yk=0 => y=0
7z+2=-A^2 => z=(-A2-2)/7

Now the first two equations give quick answers for x and y, but in order for 7 to be an integer, A2+2 must be a multiple of 7.

This is where I was led to the current title of this thread.

Now, I've put the first 1000 numbers of the form A2+2 (i.e. A=1, 2, 3, ..., 1000) into Excel and not a single one of them has been divisible by 7. Since, statistically, every 7th number should be divisible by 7, if we consider A2+2 to be a fairly random number, I thought that there must be something odd going on here that none of them had been a multiple of 7.

I could continue to put numbers into Excel (checking the first 2000, 5000, 10 000, and so on), but I thought I'd ask people here if they thought there was a simple number theory explanation for this. It's particularly pertinent for me since my whole proof hinges on an integer z existing. And if it doesn't, I shall have to try another route.

Thanks,

Chris

P. S. Also, if this statement is true (my conjecture), then it is either something that has already been proved or a pretty interesting result (to me at least), so I'd appreciate it if someone was able to prove the conjecture or point out where it's already been proven.
 
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  • #2
If [itex]x \equiv y \pmod{7}[/itex], then [itex]x^2 +2 \equiv y^2+2 \pmod{7}[/itex].

Therefore, if you check and find [itex]x^2 + 2 \not \equiv 0 \pmod{7}[/itex] for x = 0, 1, 2, .., 6, then you have shown that [itex]x^2 +2 \not \equiv 0 \pmod{7}[/itex] for all integers x.
 
  • #3
awkward said:
If [itex]x \equiv y \pmod{7}[/itex], then [itex]x^2 +2 \equiv y^2+2 \pmod{7}[/itex].

Therefore, if you check and find [itex]x^2 + 2 \not \equiv 0 \pmod{7}[/itex] for x = 0, 1, 2, .., 6, then you have shown that [itex]x^2 +2 \not \equiv 0 \pmod{7}[/itex] for all integers x.

Thanks, awkward! You just saved me a lot of time making charts in Excel.

I had tried to go in the opposite direction, but obviously that doesn't work so well because the cancellation law with respect to modular arithmetic only works when the canceled number is relatively prime to the mod. But your proof is awesome.

I was also worried because I know that conjectures are not welcomed here (in general), but I figured that something like this is not what the moderators had in mind when they banned "wild conjectures", right? I figure that an algebraic statement which is easily proven or disproven is much more timid than "I totally proved that Einstein was wrong about everything!"
 
  • #4
It asks for proof by induction, doesn't it?
 
  • #5
middleCmusic said:
Hey everyone,

I was doing a problem in my Discrete Mathematics book and it called for finding an infinite number of counterexamples to the statement "7n+2" is a perfect square (which fails for n=3 at least).

In my search for such an infinite counterexample, I tried to find A, n=n(k,A), such that 7n+2=49k2-A2 for some A, and for all k. Then, I would be able to say that for n of the form, n=(k,A), where A is some fixed number, 7n+2=49k2-A2, which is a perfect square (7k)2 minus the fixed number A2. Clearly, if you can find this then you're done because squares will get large enough that the distance between them is more than A2, and thus, for a large enough n, 7n+2=49k2-A2 would not be a perfect square, as the next lowest square would be more than A2 away.

Anyway, in my search for this number, I let n be a quadratic function of k, n = xk2+yk+z for some fixed integers x, y, z to be determined, and from there I got these equations:

7(xk2+yk+z)+2=49k2-A2, which gives

7x=49 => x=7
yk=0 => y=0
7z+2=-A^2 => z=(-A2-2)/7

Now the first two equations give quick answers for x and y, but in order for 7 to be an integer, A2+2 must be a multiple of 7.

This is where I was led to the current title of this thread.

Now, I've put the first 1000 numbers of the form A2+2 (i.e. A=1, 2, 3, ..., 1000) into Excel and not a single one of them has been divisible by 7. Since, statistically, every 7th number should be divisible by 7, if we consider A2+2 to be a fairly random number, I thought that there must be something odd going on here that none of them had been a multiple of 7.

I could continue to put numbers into Excel (checking the first 2000, 5000, 10 000, and so on), but I thought I'd ask people here if they thought there was a simple number theory explanation for this. It's particularly pertinent for me since my whole proof hinges on an integer z existing. And if it doesn't, I shall have to try another route.

Thanks,

Chris

P. S. Also, if this statement is true (my conjecture), then it is either something that has already been proved or a pretty interesting result (to me at least), so I'd appreciate it if someone was able to prove the conjecture or point out where it's already been proven.

If n is a number ending in 5, 7n ends in 5, and 7n+2 ends in 7. Same for n ending in

3--7n+2 also ends in 3.
 
  • #6
middleCmusic said:
Hey everyone,

I was doing a problem in my Discrete Mathematics book and it called for finding an infinite number of counterexamples to the statement "7n+2" is a perfect square (which fails for n=3 at least).

In my search for such an infinite counterexample, I tried to find A, n=n(k,A), such that 7n+2=49k2-A2 for some A, and for all k. Then, I would be able to say that for n of the form, n=(k,A), where A is some fixed number, 7n+2=49k2-A2, which is a perfect square (7k)2 minus the fixed number A2. Clearly, if you can find this then you're done because squares will get large enough that the distance between them is more than A2, and thus, for a large enough n, 7n+2=49k2-A2 would not be a perfect square, as the next lowest square would be more than A2 away.

Anyway, in my search for this number, I let n be a quadratic function of k, n = xk2+yk+z for some fixed integers x, y, z to be determined, and from there I got these equations:

7(xk2+yk+z)+2=49k2-A2, which gives

7x=49 => x=7
yk=0 => y=0
7z+2=-A^2 => z=(-A2-2)/7

Now the first two equations give quick answers for x and y, but in order for 7 to be an integer, A2+2 must be a multiple of 7.

This is where I was led to the current title of this thread.

Now, I've put the first 1000 numbers of the form A2+2 (i.e. A=1, 2, 3, ..., 1000) into Excel and not a single one of them has been divisible by 7. Since, statistically, every 7th number should be divisible by 7, if we consider A2+2 to be a fairly random number, I thought that there must be something odd going on here that none of them had been a multiple of 7.

I could continue to put numbers into Excel (checking the first 2000, 5000, 10 000, and so on), but I thought I'd ask people here if they thought there was a simple number theory explanation for this. It's particularly pertinent for me since my whole proof hinges on an integer z existing. And if it doesn't, I shall have to try another route.

Thanks,

Chris

P. S. Also, if this statement is true (my conjecture), then it is either something that has already been proved or a pretty interesting result (to me at least), so I'd appreciate it if someone was able to prove the conjecture or point out where it's already been proven.
I don't see what k^2 + 2 has to do with the textbook problem so I don't understand your post. A better way to attack the textbook problem would be to consider what values n^2 can have mod 10 and find x mod 10 such that 7x + 2 mod 10 does not equal the possible values of n^2 mod 10. Do this and an infinite number of integers = x mod 10 are counter examples. See Bacle2's post.
 

Related to Conjecture: There exists no number k s.t. k^2+2 is a multiple of 7

1. What is the meaning of the conjecture?

The conjecture states that there is no integer value of k that can make the expression k^2+2 a multiple of 7. In other words, there is no number that, when squared and added to 2, will result in a multiple of 7.

2. How do you prove or disprove this conjecture?

To prove this conjecture, we would need to show that for every possible integer value of k, k^2+2 is not a multiple of 7. This can be done through a mathematical proof or by providing a counterexample, where we find a specific value of k that makes the expression a multiple of 7. To disprove the conjecture, we would simply need to find a single value of k that makes k^2+2 a multiple of 7.

3. Is there any significance to the number 7 in this conjecture?

The number 7 is significant because it is a prime number. This means that it can only be divided by 1 and itself, so any multiple of 7 will also be a multiple of these numbers. Therefore, if we can show that k^2+2 is not a multiple of 7, it will also not be a multiple of 1 or 7.

4. Can this conjecture be extended to other numbers?

Yes, this conjecture can be extended to other numbers. In fact, it is a specific case of a more general conjecture known as the Fermat's theorem on sums of two squares. This theorem states that for any prime number p, there is no integer solution to the equation x^2+y^2=p, where x and y are integers. Our conjecture is a specific case of this with p=7.

5. Has this conjecture been proven or disproven?

No, this conjecture has not been proven or disproven. It is still an open problem in mathematics, and many mathematicians have attempted to find a proof or a counterexample. Some progress has been made in proving the more general Fermat's theorem, but the specific case of p=7 remains unsolved.

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