- #1
kaamlot92
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Imagine that we have a wheel spinning with the axis of rotation normal to the Earth's surface. For convenience, let's assume that the wheel is located somewhere in the north hemisphere.
According to the definition of the Coriolis force, every little particle dm of the wheel has a coriolis force in some direction. But if we integrate to get the coriolis force on the whole object, doesn't the integral go to 0 since we are in a circle?
Further, if we consider the torque on the wheel due to the coriolis force, we know that the torque is defined as: τ = r' x F.coriolis . where r' is the vector position of dm relatively to the CM of the wheel.
Since the coriolis force is zero, doesn't it mean that the torque is also zero?
(I know that the answer is no, but why? and where does the torque point...?)
According to the definition of the Coriolis force, every little particle dm of the wheel has a coriolis force in some direction. But if we integrate to get the coriolis force on the whole object, doesn't the integral go to 0 since we are in a circle?
Further, if we consider the torque on the wheel due to the coriolis force, we know that the torque is defined as: τ = r' x F.coriolis . where r' is the vector position of dm relatively to the CM of the wheel.
Since the coriolis force is zero, doesn't it mean that the torque is also zero?
(I know that the answer is no, but why? and where does the torque point...?)