- #1
evilcman
- 41
- 2
Why is the following statement true?
The only functions of p^mu that are left invariant under proper proper, orthochronous Lorentz transformations are p^2 = p_mu p^mu and for p^2<=0 also the sign of p^0.
I can see that they are invariant, but why are these the only invariants?
The only functions of p^mu that are left invariant under proper proper, orthochronous Lorentz transformations are p^2 = p_mu p^mu and for p^2<=0 also the sign of p^0.
I can see that they are invariant, but why are these the only invariants?