Is R a Principal Ideal Domain (P.I.D) Given These Properties?

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In summary: Confused)In summary, the property of $R$ means that for every couple of elements in $R$ that are not both zero, there exists an element in $R$ such that the sum of the two elements is 1. This shows that $R$ is a P.I.D.
  • #1
mathmari
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Hey! :eek:

Let $R$ be an integral domain and a Noetherian U.F.D. with the following property:

for each couple $a,b\in R$ that are not both $0$, and that have no common prime divisor, there are elements $u,v\in R$ such that $au+bv=1$.

I want to show that $R$ is a P.I.D..
Since $R$ is Noetherian, we have that every ideal is finitely generated. Then every ideal is a finite product of irreducible elements of $R$.

How could we use the above property of $R$ to conclude that $R$ is a P.I.D. ? (Wondering)
 
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  • #2
Suppose we have $I = (a,b)$.

Suppose $d = \gcd(a,b)$ (why does $d$ exist?).

Then $(a,b) = (ds,dt)$ where $\gcd(s,t) = 1$.

What can you say about $(d)$?
 
  • #3
Deveno said:
Suppose we have $I = (a,b)$.

Suppose $d = \gcd(a,b)$ (why does $d$ exist?).

Then $(a,b) = (ds,dt)$ where $\gcd(s,t) = 1$.

What can you say about $(d)$?

Since $\gcd(s,t) = 1$ from the property of $R$ we have that $\exists u,v\in R$ such that $su+tv=1$.

Then $dsu+dtv=d \Rightarrow au+bv=d$.

We have that the elements of the ideal $(a,b)$ are of the form $ax+by$ where $x,y\in R$, right? (Wondering)

That means that elements of the ideal $(a,b)$ are the multiples of $d$, or not? ( $axk+byk=dk$ )
Therefore, $(a,b)=(d)$, right? (Wondering)
 
  • #4
mathmari said:
Since $\gcd(s,t) = 1$ from the property of $R$ we have that $\exists u,v\in R$ such that $su+tv=1$.

Then $dsu+dtv=d \Rightarrow au+bv=d$.

This shows that $(d) \subseteq (a,b)$

We have that the elements of the ideal $(a,b)$ are of the form $ax+by$ where $x,y\in R$, right? (Wondering)

Yes.

That means that elements of the ideal $(a,b)$ are the multiples of $d$, or not? ( $axk+byk=dk$ )

Not quite right-your conclusion is true though.

We have $a = ds$ and $b = dt$, so $ax + by = (ds)x + (dt)y = d(sx + ty)$, so $(a,b) \subseteq (d)$


Therefore, $(a,b)=(d)$, right? (Wondering)

Now...can you use this to show $R$ is a PID?
 

Related to Is R a Principal Ideal Domain (P.I.D) Given These Properties?

1. What is a P.I.D.?

A P.I.D. (Principal Ideal Domain) is a type of mathematical structure that has certain properties, specifically that every ideal can be generated by a single element. This means that it has a unique factorization property, similar to the integers.

2. What is the significance of R being a P.I.D.?

R (the set of all real numbers) being a P.I.D. is significant because it has a well-defined notion of prime elements and unique factorization. This makes it useful for studying problems related to prime numbers and factorization.

3. How do you show that R is a P.I.D.?

To show that R is a P.I.D., we need to prove that it satisfies the three defining properties of a P.I.D.: it is an integral domain, every non-zero ideal is principal, and it has unique factorization. This can be done using various theorems and techniques from abstract algebra.

4. What are some examples of P.I.D.s?

Aside from R, some other examples of P.I.D.s include the integers (Z), polynomial rings over a field, and the Gaussian integers (a subset of the complex numbers).

5. How is a P.I.D. different from a U.F.D.?

A P.I.D. is a type of U.F.D. (Unique Factorization Domain), meaning it has unique factorization. However, not all U.F.D.s are P.I.D.s. In a P.I.D., every ideal is generated by a single element, whereas in a U.F.D. this may not be the case. Additionally, a P.I.D. must also be an integral domain, while a U.F.D. does not necessarily have to be.

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