- #1
Rigel XIX
- 6
- 0
Hello,
Is the quantization of the action the origin of the indetermination?
The reasoning goes like this:
- Just talking abut one example, a single particle with position and momentum - keep it simple -
- The measure of the position could have any value, in principle
- The same for the measure of the momentum
- However, the simultaneous measure of both of them cannot, as their product can only be an integer number multiplied by the constant of Planck
- This is so because, as far as the measures are simultaneous, they are in fact a measure of the action of the particle (it is enough to multiply them to obtain the action)
- Neglecting the fact that the measures are actually linked, results is a error in the measure of about a the magnitude of the constant of Planck, even in theory, even in a mental experiment
Is this what the Principle of Heisenberg says for position & momentum?
Thanks beforehand for any response, and please, keep it B-Level, if possible
Thanks!
Is the quantization of the action the origin of the indetermination?
The reasoning goes like this:
- Just talking abut one example, a single particle with position and momentum - keep it simple -
- The measure of the position could have any value, in principle
- The same for the measure of the momentum
- However, the simultaneous measure of both of them cannot, as their product can only be an integer number multiplied by the constant of Planck
- This is so because, as far as the measures are simultaneous, they are in fact a measure of the action of the particle (it is enough to multiply them to obtain the action)
- Neglecting the fact that the measures are actually linked, results is a error in the measure of about a the magnitude of the constant of Planck, even in theory, even in a mental experiment
Is this what the Principle of Heisenberg says for position & momentum?
Thanks beforehand for any response, and please, keep it B-Level, if possible
Thanks!