- #1
metroplex021
- 151
- 0
Hi folks -- I was reading some (non-technical) work by Frank Wilczek, in which he stated that any fundamental theory -- that is, well behaved in the E →∞ limit -- must be a local gauge theory. Does anyone know of the reasons for why this is thought to be the case?
Even sketchy remarks appreciated! Thanks!
Even sketchy remarks appreciated! Thanks!