- #1
Famwoor2
- 11
- 1
Hello all,
I have learned that the energy of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude. I have also learned (by the Planck relation) that the energy of a wave is proportional to the frequency of the wave. Doesn't this imply that the frequency of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude? I know this deduction is wrong; what am I messing up here??
Thanks for your help and time,
F2
I have learned that the energy of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude. I have also learned (by the Planck relation) that the energy of a wave is proportional to the frequency of the wave. Doesn't this imply that the frequency of a wave is proportional to the square of its amplitude? I know this deduction is wrong; what am I messing up here??
Thanks for your help and time,
F2