- #1
krocho
- 4
- 0
hi I have the following eigenvalue problem
-(x2y')'=λy for 1<x<2
y(1)=y(2)=0
I tried plugging an equation y=xa
and you get the equation
a2+a+λ=0
so for this I get that λ<1/4 to hava a solution. So does this mean, every λ smaller than 1/4 is an eigenvalue?
do you know what else I could do?
thanks
-(x2y')'=λy for 1<x<2
y(1)=y(2)=0
I tried plugging an equation y=xa
and you get the equation
a2+a+λ=0
so for this I get that λ<1/4 to hava a solution. So does this mean, every λ smaller than 1/4 is an eigenvalue?
do you know what else I could do?
thanks