- #1
mmzaj
- 107
- 0
Does this integral converge !?
[tex] \int_{0}^{\infty}x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\zeta(x)}{x}+\frac{1}{2x}-\frac{1}{x-1} \right )dx[/tex]
Where [itex]\zeta(x)[/itex] is the Riemann zeta function. Of course, we can integrate by parts to obtain :
[tex]\frac{1}{2}-\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\zeta(x)}{x}+\frac{1}{2x}-\frac{1}{x-1}\right) dx [/tex]
Unfortunately, i don't know how to do this integral, and i don't have mathematica, hence the thread !
[tex] \int_{0}^{\infty}x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{\zeta(x)}{x}+\frac{1}{2x}-\frac{1}{x-1} \right )dx[/tex]
Where [itex]\zeta(x)[/itex] is the Riemann zeta function. Of course, we can integrate by parts to obtain :
[tex]\frac{1}{2}-\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\zeta(x)}{x}+\frac{1}{2x}-\frac{1}{x-1}\right) dx [/tex]
Unfortunately, i don't know how to do this integral, and i don't have mathematica, hence the thread !