Can you prove n+1 ≥ (1+1/n)^n using induction?

In summary, "Another proof by induction" is a mathematical proof technique that involves proving a statement is true for all natural numbers. It differs from regular induction by proving the statement for a specific number rather than all numbers at once. The base case is the starting point for the proof, and the inductive step involves assuming the statement is true for a specific number and using this to prove it is also true for the next number. This method should be used for more complex statements or when working with recursive definitions.
  • #1
quasar987
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Basically I will have won if I can show that

[tex]n+1 \geq \left( 1+ \frac{1}{n} \right)^n[/tex]

can I? Not that I haven't tried...

This is also equivalent to showing that

[tex]n^n \geq (n+1)^{n-1}[/tex]
 
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  • #2
I found it. It wasn't so easy but it turns out that the sequence on the right has 3 for an upper bound. More precisely, it has e, the neperian number, has its supremum. :smile:
 
  • #3


for all positive integers n. Yes, you can prove this using induction.

First, the base case n = 1:

1^1 \geq (1+1)^{1-1}

1 \geq 2^0

1 \geq 1

which is true.

Next, assume that the statement is true for some positive integer k, meaning

k^k \geq (k+1)^{k-1}

Now, we want to show that the statement is also true for k+1:

(k+1)^{k+1} \geq (k+2)^k

Expanding the left side, we get:

(k+1)^{k+1} = (k+1) \cdot (k+1)^k

Using our assumption, we can replace (k+1)^k with k^k \cdot (k+1), giving us:

(k+1)^{k+1} = (k+1) \cdot k^k \cdot (k+1)

Simplifying, we get:

(k+1)^{k+1} = k^{k+1} \cdot (k+1)^2

Now, we can use the fact that k \geq 1 to say that k+1 \geq 2. Therefore, (k+1)^2 \geq k+2, and we can replace it in our equation:

(k+1)^{k+1} \geq k^{k+1} \cdot (k+2)

Finally, using our assumption again, we can say that k^k \geq (k+1)^{k-1}, so:

(k+1)^{k+1} \geq (k+1)^{k-1} \cdot (k+2)

Which is true, since we are assuming k+1 \geq 2.

Therefore, by induction, the statement is true for all positive integers n. This means that n+1 \geq \left( 1+ \frac{1}{n} \right)^n is also true for all positive integers n, and you have proven your statement.
 

FAQ: Can you prove n+1 ≥ (1+1/n)^n using induction?

What is "Another proof by induction"?

"Another proof by induction" is a mathematical proof technique used to prove that a statement is true for all natural numbers. It involves proving that the statement is true for a base case, and then showing that if the statement is true for a specific number, it is also true for the next number.

How does "Another proof by induction" differ from regular induction?

"Another proof by induction" is a variation of regular induction that involves proving the statement for a specific number, rather than proving it for all numbers at once. It can sometimes be easier to use when the statement being proven is more complex.

What is a base case in "Another proof by induction"?

A base case in "Another proof by induction" is the starting point for the proof. It is the first natural number for which the statement is proven to be true.

How do you prove the inductive step in "Another proof by induction"?

The inductive step in "Another proof by induction" involves assuming that the statement is true for a specific number, and then using this assumption to prove that the statement is also true for the next number. This can be done by substituting the specific number into the statement and showing that it leads to the same result as the next number.

When should "Another proof by induction" be used?

"Another proof by induction" should be used when the statement being proven is more complex and it is easier to prove it for a specific number rather than all numbers at once. It can also be used when the statement involves a recursive definition, as it allows for a more direct proof.

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