Derivative of cos\frac{1}{x}: Is it 0 or Infinity?

In summary, the conversation discusses the derivative of cos(1/x) and whether it equals 0 or infinity. The experts provide a summary of the conversation and also mention using the chain rule to solve a limit involving this function. Some mistakes are made with the Latex representation, but it is eventually corrected and the limit is determined to exist and be equal to 0.
  • #1
ultima9999
43
0
What is the derivative of [tex]cos\frac{1}{x}[/tex]?

Also, would [tex]cos\frac{1}{x}[/tex] equal 0 or infinity?
 
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  • #2
ultima9999 said:
What is the derivative of [tex]\textrm(cos)\frac{1}{x}[/tex]?
Please post your attempt(s) in finding it.

Also, would [tex]\textrm(cos)\frac{1}{x} = 0 \textrm(or) \infty[/tex]?
The cosine function can have values only within the interval [-1,1], and has the value 0 for certain values of x. (an example in this case: [tex] x = \frac{2}{\pi} [/tex])
 
  • #3
if you put: x=1/2pi*n
you get cos' (2pi*n)=(-2pi)sin(1/x)
 
  • #4
I attempted to use the chain rule and I got [tex]-\frac{sin}{x^2}\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)[/tex]

I'm trying to solve a limit where [tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \left[3x^5cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right][/tex].

So I'm using Indeterminate forms and L'Hopital's rule to try and solve it.
 
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  • #5
my mistake it should be:
(1/x^2)sin(1/x)

edit:
about the limit, i don't think it exists, cause as i said it's cos y wher y approaches infinity, which is not defined.
 
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  • #6
ultima9999 said:
I attempted to use the chain rule and I got [tex]-\frac{sin}{x^2}\right(\frac{1}{x}\left)[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{x^2}sin(\frac{1}{x}) [/tex] is correct. The two minus's cancel.

I'm trying to solve a limit where [tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \left[3x^5cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right][/tex].

So I'm using Indeterminate forms and L'Hopital's rule to try and solve it.
EDIT: Stupid me...getting this Latex all messed up! Sorry. Rewrite that as
[tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \left[3x^4\frac{cos\left{(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right}{\frac{1}{x}}][/tex]
 
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  • #7
Alright, thanks for the first part.

So [tex]\frac{1}{x}, x = 0[/tex], would be infinity and so, [tex]sin(\infty)[/tex] and [tex]cos(\infty)[/tex] would be indeterminate?
 
  • #8
ultima9999 said:
Alright, thanks for the first part.

So [tex]\frac{1}{x}, x = 0[/tex], would be infinity and so, [tex]sin(\infty)[/tex] and [tex]cos(\infty)[/tex] would be indeterminate?
I'm really sorry. As I said I'm getting both the logic and the LATEX wrong.:redface: I'll let someone better tackle this while I go hide my face from the public.
 
  • #9
loop quantum gravity said:
my mistake it should be:
(1/x^2)sin(1/x)

edit:
about the limit, i don't think it exists, cause as i said it's cos y wher y approaches infinity, which is not defined.
Err, sorry to interrupt you guys, but why can't it (i.e the limit) exist? :confused:
 
  • #10
I'm back to embarrass myself, again. The limit exists and, if I'm correct, it is zero.
 

FAQ: Derivative of cos\frac{1}{x}: Is it 0 or Infinity?

What is the derivative of cos(1/x)?

The derivative of cos(1/x) is undefined at x=0, but for all other values of x, it is equal to 0.

Why is the derivative of cos(1/x) undefined at x=0?

The derivative is undefined at x=0 because the function is not continuous at that point. As x approaches 0, the function oscillates infinitely between -1 and 1, making it impossible to determine a single value for the derivative.

Is the derivative of cos(1/x) equal to 0 or infinity?

The derivative of cos(1/x) is equal to 0 for all values of x except for x=0, where it is undefined. Therefore, it is neither equal to 0 nor infinity for the entire domain of the function.

How can we find the derivative of cos(1/x)?

The derivative of cos(1/x) can be found using the chain rule, which states that the derivative of a composite function is equal to the derivative of the outer function evaluated at the inner function, multiplied by the derivative of the inner function. In this case, the outer function is cos(x) and the inner function is 1/x.

Can the derivative of cos(1/x) be approximated at x=0?

No, the derivative of cos(1/x) cannot be approximated at x=0 because the function is not continuous at that point, and therefore does not have a well-defined tangent line. Any attempt to approximate the derivative at x=0 would result in an infinite or undefined value.

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