- #1
Montejo
- 4
- 0
Hi everyone,
I'm studying electron-electron scattering, starting with the Dirac equation it ends up calculating the invariant transition amplitude, defined as:
[tex]-iM=(ie{\overline{u}^f}_A}\gamma^\mu u^i}_A) \frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2}(ie{\overline{u}^f}_B}\gamma^\nu u^i}_B)[/tex]
With [tex]u_A[/tex] and [tex]u_B[/tex] the electron spinors (initial and final)
After this it says that in the nonrelativistic limit a Dirac-delta spin-spin term arises in the corresponding potential. How is that?
Could anyone explain where does this dirac-delta come from? (And btw a better book to study QED)
Thanks
I'm studying electron-electron scattering, starting with the Dirac equation it ends up calculating the invariant transition amplitude, defined as:
[tex]-iM=(ie{\overline{u}^f}_A}\gamma^\mu u^i}_A) \frac{-ig_{\mu\nu}}{q^2}(ie{\overline{u}^f}_B}\gamma^\nu u^i}_B)[/tex]
With [tex]u_A[/tex] and [tex]u_B[/tex] the electron spinors (initial and final)
After this it says that in the nonrelativistic limit a Dirac-delta spin-spin term arises in the corresponding potential. How is that?
Could anyone explain where does this dirac-delta come from? (And btw a better book to study QED)
Thanks