- #1
jcap
- 170
- 12
I presume that a rod can be modeled as a spring with spring constant k and compression x.
The potential energy in a spring is given by:
[tex]
E = \frac{1}{2}kx^2
[/tex]
If the spring is in equilibrium with an applied force F then we have:
[tex]
F = k x
[/tex]
Thus the potential energy in the spring in terms of the force is:
[tex]
E = \frac{1}{2}\frac{F^2}{k}
[/tex]
Thus if we have a very stiff spring so that [itex]k\rightarrow\infty[/itex] then the energy stored in the spring tends to zero for any force applied to the spring.
Is that correct?
The potential energy in a spring is given by:
[tex]
E = \frac{1}{2}kx^2
[/tex]
If the spring is in equilibrium with an applied force F then we have:
[tex]
F = k x
[/tex]
Thus the potential energy in the spring in terms of the force is:
[tex]
E = \frac{1}{2}\frac{F^2}{k}
[/tex]
Thus if we have a very stiff spring so that [itex]k\rightarrow\infty[/itex] then the energy stored in the spring tends to zero for any force applied to the spring.
Is that correct?