- #1
physengineer
- 21
- 0
Hello,
Assuming that I have a pure U(1) gauge theory. The partition function can be written as
[tex]
Z=\int D(A) \exp (-F_{\mu\nu} F^{\mu\nu})
[/tex]
If I want to find the effective action in terms of an external classical field I can write it in terms of
[itex]A\rightarrow A+B[/itex] where [itex]B[/itex] is background and then integrate over [itex]A[/itex]. Interestingly I get the same original [itex]Z[/itex] as in Gaussian integral the shift in integration does not change the result. So my final result will be independent of [itex]B[/itex]! What does this mean? Does it mean that I can treat my pure U(1) gauge theory as classical? Or I probably misunderstood the background field method.
I appreciate any comments in this regard.
Assuming that I have a pure U(1) gauge theory. The partition function can be written as
[tex]
Z=\int D(A) \exp (-F_{\mu\nu} F^{\mu\nu})
[/tex]
If I want to find the effective action in terms of an external classical field I can write it in terms of
[itex]A\rightarrow A+B[/itex] where [itex]B[/itex] is background and then integrate over [itex]A[/itex]. Interestingly I get the same original [itex]Z[/itex] as in Gaussian integral the shift in integration does not change the result. So my final result will be independent of [itex]B[/itex]! What does this mean? Does it mean that I can treat my pure U(1) gauge theory as classical? Or I probably misunderstood the background field method.
I appreciate any comments in this regard.