- #1
beetle2
- 111
- 0
Hi guys,
I know that for integral domains with finte elements that if we show that each element has a multiplicative inverse then it is a field.
I need to show that the field of fractions is a field.
As the domain is not finite how does that effect the proof of being a field?
regards
Brendan
I know that for integral domains with finte elements that if we show that each element has a multiplicative inverse then it is a field.
I need to show that the field of fractions is a field.
As the domain is not finite how does that effect the proof of being a field?
regards
Brendan