Flaw in Godel's Proof: Accepted by Mathematicians?

  • B
  • Thread starter windy miller
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Proof
In summary: The conversation has become unproductive and is no longer focused on the original topic of summarizing the conversation.
  • #1
windy miller
303
25
I have heard there is a flaw in Godels proof ? For example the claim here:
https://www.jamesrmeyer.com/pdfs/FFGIT_Meyer.pdf
Is this accepted by other mathematicians or is it a fringe view ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
windy miller said:
I have heard there is a flaw in Godels proof ? For example the claim here:
https://www.jamesrmeyer.com/pdfs/FFGIT_Meyer.pdf
Is this accepted by other mathematicians or is it a fringe view ?

Godel's theorem has been proved in dozens of ways by hundreds of people. It's certainly possible that his original presentation had mistakes, but the conclusion is certainly not in doubt.

I would go with fringe.
 
  • #3
Well actually I am interested in the issue of the robustness of the original proof, was it flawed ? So the fact that "Godel's theorem has been proved in dozens of ways by hundreds of people." is interesting but it doesn't address the issue I am interested. which has nothing to do with how the theorem is viewed today.
 
  • #4
The key components of Godel's proof are actually pretty simple. The difficulty is filling in the details. But the proof has actually been gone over with a proof-checking/theorem-proving machine, which gives a lot of credence to it: https://www.cl.cam.ac.uk/~lp15/papers/Formath/Goedel-logic.pdf (This is actually done for the theory of hereditarily finite sets, rather than PA, but they are basically equivalent.)

The bare bones of Godel's proof has the following elements:
  1. A scheme for coding formulas of arithmetic as numbers. This is clearly doable, since a formula can be written in ASCII, which associates every string of symbols with a number.
  2. A formula ##P(x)## in the language of PA with the property that ##P(x)## is true whenever ##x## is the code of a formula that is provable by PA. This is more complicated to show, but we know that you can write proof checkers as computer programs, and we know that every computer program can be translated into a partial recursive function, and partial recursive functions can be defined in arithmetic.
  3. A fixed-point operator. For any formula of arithmetic ##\phi(x)## with one free variable, there is a corresponding sentence of arithmetic, ##G## with code ##g## such that ##G \leftrightarrow \phi(g)##
  4. Putting 3&2 together gives a sentence ##G## such that ##G \leftrightarrow \neg P(g)## (##G## is true if and only if it is not provable)
  5. From that, it follows that if G is provable, then it isn't true, and so PA can prove false sentences.
  6. If G is not provable, then it follows that G is true, and so there are true sentences that are not provable in PA.
So we have a weak form of Godel's theorem: PA is either incomplete or unsound (unsound meaning that it proves false statements). To actually get that PA is inconsistent, you need a few other facts about PA:
  • For any statement ##S## with code ##s##, if ##S## is provable, then so is ##P(s)##.
  • ##G \leftrightarrow \neg P(g)## is provable in PA (not just true)
So if ##G## is provable, then so is ##P(g)##. But ##G \leftrightarrow \neg P(g)##. So if ##G## is provable, then so is ##P(g)## and ##\neg P(g)##. So PA is inconsistent, since it proves contradictory statements.
 
  • Like
Likes fresh_42
  • #5
Sorry I am not a mathematician or even very familiar with mathematics. I am just a layman interested in the history of ideas which is why I put high school level on the header. I am really just trying to understand if what's was considered proved by some was not considered prooven by others. Most of your reply i wasn't able to follow I am afraid. However I did pick up on that you seem to distinguish between a weak form and a strong form. So was one proved originally and the other not?
 
  • #6
windy miller said:
I have heard there is a flaw in Godels proof ? For example the claim here:
https://www.jamesrmeyer.com/pdfs/FFGIT_Meyer.pdf
Is this accepted by other mathematicians or is it a fringe view ?
Just as a side note: This is not an acceptable source and likely for good reasons. You shouldn't waste time on such questionable sources and worst case, will have to unlearn statements! I don't know Gödel's original proof, and experience says, that original papers are better written in books decades later. There are textbooks about logic in abundance and certainly even many for free or small money, if used. These are certainly better sources than colorful websites of crackpots.

This thread is closed.
 

FAQ: Flaw in Godel's Proof: Accepted by Mathematicians?

What is Godel's Proof and why is it important to mathematicians?

Godel's Proof, also known as Godel's Incompleteness Theorems, are two theorems proved by mathematician Kurt Godel in 1931. These theorems show that in any axiomatic mathematical system, there will always be statements that cannot be proven or disproven within that system. This has significant implications for the foundations of mathematics and has greatly influenced the study of logic and the philosophy of mathematics.

What is the "Flaw in Godel's Proof" and why is it controversial?

The "Flaw in Godel's Proof" refers to a paper published in 2006 by mathematician Gregorio Chaitin, who claims to have found a flaw in one of Godel's proofs. Chaitin argues that Godel's proof relies on an assumption that cannot be proven, making the proof invalid. This is controversial because Godel's proof is considered a cornerstone of modern mathematics, and any claim of a flaw or error is highly debated and scrutinized by mathematicians.

How have mathematicians responded to the "Flaw in Godel's Proof"?

Many mathematicians have responded to Chaitin's paper, with some arguing that his claim is not valid and others acknowledging that the flaw he points out may not be significant enough to discredit Godel's proof. Some mathematicians have also proposed alternative proofs for Godel's theorems that do not rely on the potentially flawed assumption.

Has the "Flaw in Godel's Proof" had any impact on the acceptance of Godel's theorems?

No, the "Flaw in Godel's Proof" has not had a significant impact on the acceptance of Godel's theorems. While some mathematicians may consider Chaitin's argument, the majority still accept Godel's proofs as valid and continue to use them in their work. Godel's theorems are still widely studied and considered fundamental to the understanding of mathematics.

Are there any potential implications or consequences if the "Flaw in Godel's Proof" is proven to be valid?

If the "Flaw in Godel's Proof" is proven to be valid, it could have significant implications for the foundations of mathematics and the study of logic. It could potentially lead to a re-evaluation of Godel's theorems and the development of new proofs for them. It could also prompt a deeper examination of the assumptions and principles underlying mathematical systems and their limitations.

Similar threads

Back
Top