- #1
Ylle
- 79
- 0
Homework Statement
I have two assignments I have some problems with.
The first one:
For n > 0, let
fn(t) = {1, 0 [tex]\leq[/tex] t [tex]\leq[/tex] 1/n
0, otherwise
Show that fn [tex]\rightarrow[/tex] 0 in L2[0,1]. Show that fn does NOT converge to zero uniformly on [0,1]
The second one:
Find the L2[-[tex]\pi[/tex], [tex]\pi[/tex]] orthogonal projection of the function f(x) = x2 onto the space Vn [tex]\subset[/tex] L2[-[tex]\pi[/tex], [tex]\pi[/tex]] spanned by
{1, sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex]), cos(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex]); j =1,...,n}
for n = 1. Repeat this exercise for n= 2 and n = 3.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
For the first one, I will take the integral:
|fn|2 = int(0 to 1/n) (1)^2 dt = 1/n - and therefor it converges to 0 for n -> infinite.
It's the second part of this I'm not sure about. I'm not sure how to explain it. Any help ?
For the second one, I first test if the basis' is orthonormal, but first taking the inner product of each of them <1, sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])>, <1, cos(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])> and <sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex]), cos(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])> to find out they are all = 0.
And then I take the inner product of every basis <1,1>, <sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex]), sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])> and so on, to find out that 1 is not 1, but 2*pi. So I normalize that one by dividing it with the 2*pi, and then I have an orthonormal basis, since the other to are have the length 1.
And then to find the orthogonal projection I say:
<x2, 1/(2*pi)>1/2*pi + <x2, sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])>sin(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex]) + <x2, cos(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])>cos(jx)/sqrt([tex]\pi[/tex])
And since I do it for j, and not a 1, 2 or 3, I guess I really don't need to show it for 1, 2 or 3, since it's only some different integrals that make the difference +
Well, I hope you can help me a bit.
Regards