- #36
TFM
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sara_87 said:Laplace of e^3t(t)=1/(p-3)^2
so Laplace of ------ = 2/(p-1)^2
we know that laplace of 2t=2/p^2
so that means laplace of 2t(e^t)=2/(p-1)^2
does this make sense to you?? (think about it). you are finding the opposite of the laplace...called the inverse.
That does indeed make sense, so now would you put it all together (ie the e^3t and the 2t(e^t))?
TFM