- #1
Marin
- 193
- 0
hi there!
I have the following sum:
[tex]\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!}[/tex]
and I want to let it run from n=0 to infty
it´s somehow obvious that:
[tex]\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!} - 1=\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!}[/tex]
but how do I prove it? I tried to write n-1 instead n but when I calculated it it wasn´t in a way the result from the equation above.
Does anyone know how I should do this operation?
thanks in advance
I have the following sum:
[tex]\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!}[/tex]
and I want to let it run from n=0 to infty
it´s somehow obvious that:
[tex]\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!} - 1=\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^\infty}(-1)^n\frac{(2z)^n}{(2n)!}[/tex]
but how do I prove it? I tried to write n-1 instead n but when I calculated it it wasn´t in a way the result from the equation above.
Does anyone know how I should do this operation?
thanks in advance