- #1
jojoo
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How to prove
[itex]g^{im}
\nabla_{\partial_j}R_{ilkm}=\nabla_{\partial_j}R_{lk}[/itex].
of cause [itex]g^{im}R_{ilkm}=R_{lk}[/itex], but I don't know how the contraction can pass through the covariant derivative?
[itex]g^{im}
\nabla_{\partial_j}R_{ilkm}=\nabla_{\partial_j}R_{lk}[/itex].
of cause [itex]g^{im}R_{ilkm}=R_{lk}[/itex], but I don't know how the contraction can pass through the covariant derivative?
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