- #1
LAHLH
- 409
- 1
Hi,
I'm struggling with how to see that
[itex]\int^{L}_{0}\int^{L}_{0} \frac{dxdy}{(x-y)^2}=2L/a-2\ln{(L/a)}+\mathcal{O}(1) [/itex]
'a' here is a cutoff to avoid the divergence that occurs when x=y, I presume we just set the integrand to zero when x-y<a, I think.
Can anyone see why the above holds?
I'm struggling with how to see that
[itex]\int^{L}_{0}\int^{L}_{0} \frac{dxdy}{(x-y)^2}=2L/a-2\ln{(L/a)}+\mathcal{O}(1) [/itex]
'a' here is a cutoff to avoid the divergence that occurs when x=y, I presume we just set the integrand to zero when x-y<a, I think.
Can anyone see why the above holds?