- #1
JG89
- 728
- 1
I know that if [tex] \forall x \in E \subset \mathbb{R}^n [/tex] we have [tex] f(x) \le g(x) [/tex] then it is true that [tex] \int_E f \le \int_E g [/tex].
However, is it also true that if [tex] \forall x \in E [/tex] we have [tex] f(x) < g(x) [/tex] then [tex] \int_E f < \int_E g [/tex]?
However, is it also true that if [tex] \forall x \in E [/tex] we have [tex] f(x) < g(x) [/tex] then [tex] \int_E f < \int_E g [/tex]?