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We say that two sequences f,g are f=O(g) if-f there is a c>0 such that |f(n)|<c|g(n)| uniformly as n tends to infinity.
If g(n)>2, does f=O(g) imply lnf=O(ln(g))?
We say that two sequences f,g are f=O(g) if-f there is a c>0 such that |f(n)|<c|g(n)| uniformly as n tends to infinity.
If g(n)>2, does f=O(g) imply lnf=O(ln(g))?