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d70yxj
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Dear Forum, I have a question about inflation which has been bugging me for a while. Hopefully someone can help.
During inflation, as a wavenumber k crosses the horizon, the quantum field
mode associated with momentum k is supposed to "freeze in" as a classical
perturbation, right?
So, it seems like that mode of the field operator collapses into one
particular eigenstate. And, when the mode re-crosses the horizon later on,
it doesn't return to behaving as a quantum fluctuation - so the freezing
seems to be irreversible.
Does this mean that the freezing-in is like a measurement (in the sense of
quantum mechanics), or is there another way to understand it? If it is a
measurement, what does the measuring and when does it happen? If it isn't, then what am I getting wrong, above?
During inflation, as a wavenumber k crosses the horizon, the quantum field
mode associated with momentum k is supposed to "freeze in" as a classical
perturbation, right?
So, it seems like that mode of the field operator collapses into one
particular eigenstate. And, when the mode re-crosses the horizon later on,
it doesn't return to behaving as a quantum fluctuation - so the freezing
seems to be irreversible.
Does this mean that the freezing-in is like a measurement (in the sense of
quantum mechanics), or is there another way to understand it? If it is a
measurement, what does the measuring and when does it happen? If it isn't, then what am I getting wrong, above?