- #1
Karlisbad
- 131
- 0
Let be the Kelin-gordon equation (m=0) with a potential so:
[tex] (-\frac{\partial ^{2}}{\partial t^{2}}+V(x) )\Phi=0 [/tex]
my question is if you consider the wave function above as an operator..is the K-G operator of the form:
[tex] <0|T(\Phi(x)\Phi(x')|0> [/tex] T=time ordered
I think that in both cases..we use the same wave function but once is an scalar (or an spinor for electrons) and the other is an escalar...:shy: :shy:
[tex] (-\frac{\partial ^{2}}{\partial t^{2}}+V(x) )\Phi=0 [/tex]
my question is if you consider the wave function above as an operator..is the K-G operator of the form:
[tex] <0|T(\Phi(x)\Phi(x')|0> [/tex] T=time ordered
I think that in both cases..we use the same wave function but once is an scalar (or an spinor for electrons) and the other is an escalar...:shy: :shy: