- #1
lonewolf5999
- 35
- 0
Hello,
I'm working through an analysis textbook on my own, and came across a true/false question I was hoping someone could help me with. The question is:
If A is a bounded set, then s = sup A is a limit point of A.
I think that the statement is false, as I came up with what I think is a counterexample. Let A = {1,2}, then clearly A is bounded since if a is an element of A, 1 <= a <= 2. Also, sup A = 2. But in an earlier exercise, I proved that finite sets have no limit points, so since A is finite, sup A = 2 is not a limit point of A even though A is bounded.
However, my book claims that this statement is true, and even gives a proof. I can't figure out what's wrong with my counterexample, so I'd really appreciate it if anyone could help me figure out what's wrong here. Thanks a lot!
I'm working through an analysis textbook on my own, and came across a true/false question I was hoping someone could help me with. The question is:
If A is a bounded set, then s = sup A is a limit point of A.
I think that the statement is false, as I came up with what I think is a counterexample. Let A = {1,2}, then clearly A is bounded since if a is an element of A, 1 <= a <= 2. Also, sup A = 2. But in an earlier exercise, I proved that finite sets have no limit points, so since A is finite, sup A = 2 is not a limit point of A even though A is bounded.
However, my book claims that this statement is true, and even gives a proof. I can't figure out what's wrong with my counterexample, so I'd really appreciate it if anyone could help me figure out what's wrong here. Thanks a lot!