- #1
andrewr
- 263
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Could anyone give me a simple explanation as to why the Fermat/Hamilton principle would be called more general than the Jacobi least time principle? I am trying to understand what differences would result from using the one principle vs. the other; eg: where/in what way would the Jacobi least time be inferior?
I know basic ODE, PDE, linear algebra, and variational methods. I have a BSEE background.
Thanks.
I know basic ODE, PDE, linear algebra, and variational methods. I have a BSEE background.
Thanks.