- #1
mercmisfire
- 16
- 0
I have never been the best at probability and statistics -- it has always struck me as somewhat odd but, nonetheless, I can usually grasp it to a greater or lesser degree. One of the assumptions that I have made is that probability works because of some underlying tendecies which are present or absent throughout a fairly constant portion of the population (ie, the reason that X% of Americans believe Y is related to certain genetic factors, upbringing, etc.). However, I have been completely befuddled by the fact that scientists now believe that particles can arise, change, move and cease without any cause (I believe it is quarks that do this (?)) --> ie, one such particle shot between two magnetic plates will go straight, while another identical particle will move upwards, without any changes in the conditions, so that the movement of the particles is known to be without cause. From what I have read, it has been largely accepted that there are no hidden variables, no missed causes, involved in the movement, creation and destruction of these particles. However, despite their being uncaused, the arising, movement and cessation of the particles can be represented as probabilities. How can something which is completely uncaused be anything except random. It seems to me that if these particles truly lack any causation or control they should be completely unpredictable; unless some underlying factor controls their motion, each particle should move completely independently of the any other and of anything else since each one, not subject to any causes related to the other particles, acts completely on its own --> it seems then that probability should not be able to make reliable perdictions about the particles. How can something that is uncaused and completely uninfluenced by anything else possibly be said to follow a predicable pattern ? Isn't that a contradiction.
hoping for some help,
-->merc
hoping for some help,
-->merc