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Frankww
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Quesion in approaching to Path Integral
I've just read "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integral" book which was written by Feynman, he said the phase of probability amplitude is proportional to "the ACTION [tex] S [/tex] in units of Quantum of action [tex] \hbar [/tex]. What is the reason to be that? Can anybody explain it to me physically? Thank you for all replies.
I've just read "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integral" book which was written by Feynman, he said the phase of probability amplitude is proportional to "the ACTION [tex] S [/tex] in units of Quantum of action [tex] \hbar [/tex]. What is the reason to be that? Can anybody explain it to me physically? Thank you for all replies.
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