- #1
flotsam
- 29
- 0
How does instantanious action at a distance reconcile itself with Planck Time and the assumption that nothing can happen in this minuscule timescale? Does the transition from cause to effect not have a Planck time after the cause and before the effect?
Could one describe a unit of Planck Time as being 'the present' and one must wait for the future for anything to happen?
Maybe I'm barking up the wrong tree, but one can only learn.
Could one describe a unit of Planck Time as being 'the present' and one must wait for the future for anything to happen?
Maybe I'm barking up the wrong tree, but one can only learn.