- #1
tomwilliam2
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I'm working through a solved problem in a fluid mechanics textbook. In it, the group velocity of a dispersive wave is calculated as:
$$c_g = \frac{1}{2}c\left (1 + 2kh\ \text{cosech} (2kh) \right)$$
Where k is the angular wavenumber, and h is the depth of the water, which is fine. Now for shallow waves, we assume that $$kh \ll 1$$, which we can use to simplify the last part of the expression above:
$$\text{cosech} (2kh) = \frac{1}{\sinh(2kh)}=\frac{2}{e^{2kh}-e^{-2kh}} \approx \frac{2}{1+2kh-(1-2kh)}$$
resulting in $$c_g = c$$.
I don't really understand how the $$1/\sinh(2kh)$$ in exponential form is approximated in the manner written above...how does:
$$e^{2kh}=1+2kh$$
Is this a mathematical approximation or is there some physical reasoning behind it?
Thanks in advance
$$c_g = \frac{1}{2}c\left (1 + 2kh\ \text{cosech} (2kh) \right)$$
Where k is the angular wavenumber, and h is the depth of the water, which is fine. Now for shallow waves, we assume that $$kh \ll 1$$, which we can use to simplify the last part of the expression above:
$$\text{cosech} (2kh) = \frac{1}{\sinh(2kh)}=\frac{2}{e^{2kh}-e^{-2kh}} \approx \frac{2}{1+2kh-(1-2kh)}$$
resulting in $$c_g = c$$.
I don't really understand how the $$1/\sinh(2kh)$$ in exponential form is approximated in the manner written above...how does:
$$e^{2kh}=1+2kh$$
Is this a mathematical approximation or is there some physical reasoning behind it?
Thanks in advance
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