- #1
LostConjugate
- 850
- 3
Lets say we measure [tex]L_z[/tex] and [tex]L^2[/tex] simultaneously and [tex]L^2[/tex] happens to be equal to [tex](L_z)^2[/tex]. This requires a zero value for the x and y components of angular momentum.
Does this mean, in this special case, we know the values of [tex]L_x L_y L_z & L^2[/tex] simultaneously?
Does this mean, in this special case, we know the values of [tex]L_x L_y L_z & L^2[/tex] simultaneously?