- #1
Miike012
- 1,009
- 0
Ok.. I've been looking at the sum of angle A and angle B...
in the proof they substituted angle A ( adjacent to angle B ) for the upper right angle A.
It seems obvious that one can do this because they are the same exact angle, but what is confusing me is that the triangles do not have the same exact leg proportions... Does that not matter?
in the proof they substituted angle A ( adjacent to angle B ) for the upper right angle A.
It seems obvious that one can do this because they are the same exact angle, but what is confusing me is that the triangles do not have the same exact leg proportions... Does that not matter?