- #1
billinr
- 15
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I would like to ask if anyone could explain how torque is consumed through a reduction ratio - in this case pulleys on a common shaft.
I have a three shaft system, joined by belts.
The motor pulley is 25.4mm, turning at 100 rpm, with an available 1.4Nm torque. This is connected to the second shaft via belt. The second shaft has an input pulley of 82.5mm.
Also on the second shaft is another pulley of 24.5mm. This pulley is connected via belt to a third shaft with a 40.6mm pulley.
My question is: If the final pulley makes use of 100% of the torque available, how would I calculate how much of the torque is used at the jack shaft? If I negate any losses from bearings, does the ratio have any effect on the torque or is the intermediate shaft just going along for the ride?
On the other side, does the ratio change the torque that is available at the third shaft?
Thanks
I have a three shaft system, joined by belts.
The motor pulley is 25.4mm, turning at 100 rpm, with an available 1.4Nm torque. This is connected to the second shaft via belt. The second shaft has an input pulley of 82.5mm.
Also on the second shaft is another pulley of 24.5mm. This pulley is connected via belt to a third shaft with a 40.6mm pulley.
My question is: If the final pulley makes use of 100% of the torque available, how would I calculate how much of the torque is used at the jack shaft? If I negate any losses from bearings, does the ratio have any effect on the torque or is the intermediate shaft just going along for the ride?
On the other side, does the ratio change the torque that is available at the third shaft?
Thanks