- #1
nacho-man
- 171
- 0
Please refer to the attached image.The concept of MGF still plagues me.
I got an invalid answer when i tried this.
What i did was:
$ \int e^{tx}f_{X}(x)dx $
= $ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{tx}(p \lambda e^{-\lambda x} + (1-p)\mu e^{-x\mu})dx$
I was a bit wary at this point, because it reminded me of the bernoulli with the p and (1-p) but i could not find any relation for this.
i separated the two integrals, and ended up with
$ p \lambda \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{tx-x\lambda}dx + ... $ which i knew was immediately wrong because that integral does not converge.
What did i do wrong.
What does the MGF even tell us. First, second, nth moment, what does this mean to me?
I got an invalid answer when i tried this.
What i did was:
$ \int e^{tx}f_{X}(x)dx $
= $ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{tx}(p \lambda e^{-\lambda x} + (1-p)\mu e^{-x\mu})dx$
I was a bit wary at this point, because it reminded me of the bernoulli with the p and (1-p) but i could not find any relation for this.
i separated the two integrals, and ended up with
$ p \lambda \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{tx-x\lambda}dx + ... $ which i knew was immediately wrong because that integral does not converge.
What did i do wrong.
What does the MGF even tell us. First, second, nth moment, what does this mean to me?