- #1
kingwinner
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This is a theorem about Jacobi symbols in my textbook:
Let n and m be ODD and positive. Then (a/nm)=(a/n)(a/m) and (ab/n)=(a/n)(b/n)
Moreover,
(i) If gcd(a,n)=1, then ([tex]a^2/n[/tex]) = 1 = ([tex]a/n^2[/tex])
(ii) If gcd(ab,nm)=1, then ([tex]ab^2/nm^2[/tex])=(a/n)
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(i) is easy and follows from the definition, but how can we prove (ii)? My textbook stated the theorem without proof and just says the proofs are easy, but I have no idea why (ii) is true.
Any help is appreciated!
Let n and m be ODD and positive. Then (a/nm)=(a/n)(a/m) and (ab/n)=(a/n)(b/n)
Moreover,
(i) If gcd(a,n)=1, then ([tex]a^2/n[/tex]) = 1 = ([tex]a/n^2[/tex])
(ii) If gcd(ab,nm)=1, then ([tex]ab^2/nm^2[/tex])=(a/n)
=====================================
(i) is easy and follows from the definition, but how can we prove (ii)? My textbook stated the theorem without proof and just says the proofs are easy, but I have no idea why (ii) is true.
Any help is appreciated!