- #1
Whistlekins
- 21
- 0
I have f(x) = (x^2+x-2)/(x-1) and g(x) = x+2
Now everyone would agree that f has a domain R\{1} and g has a domain R.
Yet I can write (x^2+x-2)/(x-1) = x+2
So why wouldn't g have a domain R\{1} if I rewrite the expression, and vice versa for f? What mathematical principle is behind this?
Now everyone would agree that f has a domain R\{1} and g has a domain R.
Yet I can write (x^2+x-2)/(x-1) = x+2
So why wouldn't g have a domain R\{1} if I rewrite the expression, and vice versa for f? What mathematical principle is behind this?