- #36
baywax
Gold Member
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kant said:The problem i see with such answer is the utter useless nature in giving any insight to the question at all. Suppose a coin falls on a table with head facing toward you. When one ask why it is head? One can answer that it is head because it is head. It would tell us nothing at all. One could explain that there is as much chance for both head and tail, but it just so happens that it is a head at his trial. I think such explanation is much more meaningful.
What do you mean by "(conceptual) nature"? Surely, nothing is no a thing, but it does express an absense of a thing.
Exactly. "Nothing" is an expression of the absence of existence. There is no other way to express that other than conceptually. You can't show non-existence to exist other than by concept alone.
The OP does assume that "anything" exists and "nothing" does not. Perhaps whoever wrote it is wrong as is demonstrated in my 3rd answer which says "anything" can include "nothing" and therefore both "exist".
The basis of the question is "why does existence exist and not non-existence". But the answer becomes obvious in the meaning of the word "exist". Logically, non-existence does not exist because it is non-existent.
Let p be the statement that "the physical space-time observable universe exist".
There is not logical bases to favor p more than -p. We can answer by saying that the p is true no matter what, but what is your justification for that?
The question is not logical. This is because its asking why non-existence or "nothing" does not exist whereas "anything" or more precisely "existence" does. The answer is inherent in the question as I have already demonstrated a couple of times.