- #1
tolove
- 164
- 1
My book is showing this as an intuitive step, but I'm not quite seeing the reasoning behind it.
n**(c/n) → 1 as n → ∞, for, I think, any positive c. But why?
n**(c/n) → 1 as n → ∞, for, I think, any positive c. But why?