Proving that the sum of 2 measurable functions is measurable

In summary, the author is trying to show that the positive part of (f + g) is measurable. However, he is having trouble proving this using the definitions given in his book.
  • #1
oblixps
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I know there are many proofs for this but I am having trouble proving this fact using my book's definition.

My book defines first a non negative measurable function f as a function that can be written as the limit of a non decreasing sequence of non-negative simple functions.

Then my book defines that a function (taking on both positive and negative values) is measurable if both its positive part and negative part are measurable.

Let f and g be 2 measurable functions. Show that f + g is meaasurable as well.
If f and g are both non-negative, then it is clear that if $s_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence converging to f and $t_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence converging to g, then $s_n + t_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence converging to f + g.

However, I am having trouble with the more general case where f and g can take both positive and negative values. I am trying to show that the positive part of (f + g) is measurable, which means there exists a nondecreasing sequence of non-negative simple functions converging to $(f + g)^+$.

If I choose an x where f(x) and g(x) are non-negative, then it is clear how to construct such a sequence.

However, if I choose an x where f(x) > 0 and g(x) < 0 and f(x) + g(x) > 0, then I can represent this as $f^+ - g^-$. but i can't seem to come up with a sequence of functions converging to $f^+ - g^-$ AND is non decreasing. If $s_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence converging to $f^+$ and $t_n$ is a nondecreasing sequence converging to $g^-$, $s_n - t_n$ converges to $f^+ - g^-$ but it may not be a non decreasing sequence.

Can someone help me with this problem?
 
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  • #2
To make sure we have a non decreasing sequence
we will abandon some terms to make sure
[tex] s_n - t_n [/tex] is a non decreasing

[tex] f(x) - g(x) > 0 [/tex]

take [tex] \epsilon < \frac{f(x) - g(x) }{2} [/tex]

from the convergence we will have [tex] n_o \in \mathbb{N} [/tex]
and [tex] m_o \in \mathbb{N}[/tex]

such that [tex] \mid f_n - f(x) \mid < \epsilon [/tex] for all [tex] n > n_o [/tex]
and [tex] \mid g_n - g(x) \mid < \epsilon [/tex] for all [tex] n >m_o [/tex]

let [tex] r = max( n_o , m_o ) [/tex]
[tex] s_n - t_n [/tex] is non decreasing for all [tex] n > r [/tex]
 
  • #3
oblixps said:
I know there are many proofs for this but I am having trouble proving this fact using my book's definition.

My book defines first a non negative measurable function f as a function that can be written as the limit of a non decreasing sequence of non-negative simple functions.

Then my book defines that a function (taking on both positive and negative values) is measurable if both its positive part and negative part are measurable.

Let f and g be 2 measurable functions. Show that f + g is measurable as well.
That is a terrible way to define a measurable function. The usual approach is to define measurable functions in terms of measurable sets. Then a function $f$ is said to be measurable if for every real number $\alpha$ the set $\{x:f(x)>\alpha\}$ is measurable. In that case, if $f$ and $g$ are measurable functions then the set $\{x:f(x) + g(x)>\alpha\}$ is the union of the sets $\{x:f(x)>r\}\cap \{x:g(x)>\alpha - r\}$ as $r$ runs through the rational numbers. That is a countable union of measurable sets and is therefore measurable.

Starting from your book's definition of measurability, it does not even seem easy to show that the sum of a measurable function and a constant function is measurable.
 
  • #4
Amer, could you explain a little more why $s_n - t_n$ must be non decreasing for n > r?
I don't really see how that follows from knowing $|s_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon$ and $|t_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon$. These expressions tell us how to bound $s_n - t_n$ for each n, but doesn't seem to give us a relationship between the nth and (n+1)th term.

Opalg, I agree that the more standard definition of a measurable function makes this problem much easier to prove.

thank you for both of your answers!
 
  • #5
oblixps said:
Amer, could you explain a little more why $s_n - t_n$ must be non decreasing for n > r?
I don't really see how that follows from knowing $|s_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon$ and $|t_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon$. These expressions tell us how to bound $s_n - t_n$ for each n, but doesn't seem to give us a relationship between the nth and (n+1)th term.

Opalg, I agree that the more standard definition of a measurable function makes this problem much easier to prove.

thank you for both of your answers!

f(x) > g(x)
[tex] f(x) - g(x) > 2\epsilon [/tex]

since [tex] t_n [/tex] is non decreasing, so [tex] t_n \leq f(x) [/tex]
and [tex] s_n [/tex] is non decreasing so [tex] s_n \leq g(x)[/tex]

for n>r
[tex] \mid f(x) - t_n \mid < \frac{f(x) - g(x) }{2} [/tex]
we can take it without the absolute value since f(x) > tn
[tex] f(x) - t_n < \frac{f(x) - g(x) }{2} < f(x) - g(x) [/tex]
[tex] f(x) - t_n < f(x) - g(x) [/tex]
[tex] 0 < t_n - g(x) [/tex] for n>r

but [tex] g(x) > s_n [/tex]
[tex] 0 < t_n - g(x) < t_n - s_n [/tex] , for n>r

[tex] t_n \leq t_{n+1} \Rightarrow 0 \leq t_{n+1} -t_n + s_{n+1} - s_{n+1} \leq t_{n+1} - s_{n+1} - t_n + s_n [/tex] since [tex]s_n \leq s_{n+1} [/tex]
This
[tex] 0 \leq t_{n+1} - s_{n+1} - ( t_n - s_n ) [/tex] so [tex] t_n - s_n [/tex] is non decreasing
Here is a picture for what I did and the epsilon I took
View attachment 1472

I hope of solution is clear now
Edited: :(
I made a mistake sorry, if we have [tex] t_{n+1} = t_n [/tex]
and [tex] s_{n+1} > s_n [/tex]
we get [tex] t_{n+1} - s_{n+1} < t_n - s_n [/tex]
Thinking of something else
 

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Related to Proving that the sum of 2 measurable functions is measurable

1. What does it mean for a function to be measurable?

A measurable function is one where the pre-image of any measurable set is also a measurable set. In other words, the domain and range of the function are both measurable sets.

2. Is the sum of two measurable functions always measurable?

Yes, the sum of two measurable functions is always measurable. This is because the pre-image of the sum of two measurable sets is equal to the sum of the pre-images of the individual sets, and the pre-image of a measurable set is always measurable.

3. Can you prove that the sum of two measurable functions is measurable?

Yes, the proof involves showing that the pre-image of the sum of two measurable sets is equal to the sum of the pre-images of the individual sets. This can be done using the properties of measurable sets and measurable functions.

4. Why is proving the measurability of the sum of two functions important?

Proving the measurability of the sum of two functions is important because it allows us to extend the concept of measurability to arithmetic operations on measurable functions. This is crucial in many areas of mathematics and science, particularly in the study of integration and measure theory.

5. Are there any other properties of measurable functions that are important to know?

Yes, besides measurability under arithmetic operations, measurable functions also have properties such as continuity, integrability, and convergence. These properties are essential in various fields of mathematics and science, including analysis, probability, and statistics.

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