Thermodynamic temperature scale and Carnot cycle

  • #1
chimay
81
7
TL;DR Summary
This thread is about the concept of thermodynamic temperature scale and its derivation through thought experiments involving Carnot engines.
Hi all,
recently I started following the MIT course "Statistical Mechanics I: Statistical Mechanics Of Particles" by MIT (here).
In the second lesson Prof. Kardar introduces the concept of thermodynamic temperature analyzing the behavior of two Carnot engines that share a thermal reservour at temperatre [itex]T_2[/itex]. The lecture notes can be found here.

My doubt is about Eq. I.21 and I.22 at pag. 10. It seems to me that from
[tex] 1-\eta(T1,T2) = \frac{1-\eta(T1,T3)}{1-\eta(T2,T3)} [/tex]
I can conclude that
[tex] 1-\eta(T1,T2) = \frac{f(T_1)}{f(T_2)} [/tex]
by taking [itex] T_3 [/itex] as a reference temperature (note that [itex] T_1>T_2>T_3[/itex]). In the previous equation [itex] f [/itex] is a generic function but since the definition of [itex] T [/itex] is arbitrary we can say
[tex] 1-\eta(T1,T2) = \frac{T_1}{T_2} [/tex].

Now the problem is that from the definition of efficiency of a Carnot engine
[tex] 1-\eta(T1,T2) = \frac{Q_2}{Q_1} [/tex]

and equating the last two equations it results
[tex] \frac{Q_2}{Q_1}= \frac{T_1}{T_2} [/tex]
that is clearly wrong (see Eq. I.22).

Where is my mistake here?

Thank you in advance for your reply.
 
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  • #2
##\frac {f(T_1)} {f(T_2)} < 1, T_1>T_2##. Thus, you cannot replace ##f(T)## with ##T##, but you can replace it with ##\frac 1 T##. Then, everything works just fine.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Hi Hill,
thank you for your reply. It makes sense now.
 
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