- #1
daniel_i_l
Gold Member
- 868
- 0
This is just something I was thinking about the other day:
Lets say that we have an object with the mass of 1kg and at t=0: x=0m and v=0m/s. Now we apply a force over time t with the force: F=sin(t)N.
that means that a=sin(t). To get v we integrate and get: v = 1-cos(t).
Then we integrate for x and get x = t - sin(t).
That means that after a few seconds the mass will be way on the x+ side. But why should this be if on average the amount of force in that direction is 0?!
Lets say that we have an object with the mass of 1kg and at t=0: x=0m and v=0m/s. Now we apply a force over time t with the force: F=sin(t)N.
that means that a=sin(t). To get v we integrate and get: v = 1-cos(t).
Then we integrate for x and get x = t - sin(t).
That means that after a few seconds the mass will be way on the x+ side. But why should this be if on average the amount of force in that direction is 0?!