- #1
mike412
- 3
- 0
Magnetism and Current Carrying wires (?)
I have a homework problem my teacher gave and warned us it was "Very difficult". I've tried drawing out the forces and i think i have made some headway but the vector-nature of magnetism confuses me... For example, i see in some solutions the forces along the y cancel and i don't know how that conclusion is made (i might be using RHR wrong).
Anyway here is my question: (OR SEE ATTACHMENT)
Three current carrying wires are configured into a PENDULUM. With the top vertex being stationary and carrying current I2= 2A (OUT OF THE PAGE). Off either side of the vertex are wires having I1= sqrt((mg*pi)/micr) a length of 1m, mass m and the string length is 1/6 m.
Find the ANGLE that the wires come to equilibrium.
Here is my work:
** Forces on a Pendulum **
Fy= Tension (along Y) = Gravitational force (mg)
Fx= Tension (along x) = Magnetic Force (BIL sin (theta))
therefore: F= mg (sin/cos theta) and since F= BIL sin (theta)
BIL sin (theta)= mg (sin/cos theta) [sin theta cancels leaving]
*** theta= cos^-1 (mg/BIL) ***
B can be substituted with (micro0*I/ 2*pi*r) but as long as i can't figure out B i can't solve the problem. HELP!
Thanks for your time,
Mike
I have a homework problem my teacher gave and warned us it was "Very difficult". I've tried drawing out the forces and i think i have made some headway but the vector-nature of magnetism confuses me... For example, i see in some solutions the forces along the y cancel and i don't know how that conclusion is made (i might be using RHR wrong).
Anyway here is my question: (OR SEE ATTACHMENT)
Three current carrying wires are configured into a PENDULUM. With the top vertex being stationary and carrying current I2= 2A (OUT OF THE PAGE). Off either side of the vertex are wires having I1= sqrt((mg*pi)/micr) a length of 1m, mass m and the string length is 1/6 m.
Find the ANGLE that the wires come to equilibrium.
Here is my work:
** Forces on a Pendulum **
Fy= Tension (along Y) = Gravitational force (mg)
Fx= Tension (along x) = Magnetic Force (BIL sin (theta))
therefore: F= mg (sin/cos theta) and since F= BIL sin (theta)
BIL sin (theta)= mg (sin/cos theta) [sin theta cancels leaving]
*** theta= cos^-1 (mg/BIL) ***
B can be substituted with (micro0*I/ 2*pi*r) but as long as i can't figure out B i can't solve the problem. HELP!
Thanks for your time,
Mike