- #1
robertoCamera
- 2
- 0
Homework Statement
I want to know if there are any conditions we can apply that will give us the following equality:
sum from k=1 to infinity of (-e^(2pi i x))^k = -e^(2pi i x)/ (1+e^(2pi i x))
Homework Equations
I know in Real Numbers if |r|<1 then we have sum k=1 to infinity of r^k = r/(1-r)
In the Real Numbers things fail when the magnitude is 1. Is the same true in Complex numbers?
The Attempt at a Solution
We get the equivalence for finite N via induction:
sum k=1 to 1 (-exp(2pi i x))^k=-exp(2pi i x)=(-exp(2pi i x)-exp(2pi i 2x ) ) / ( 1 +exp(2pi i x) )
Then using induction
Assuming
sum k=1 to N (-exp(2pi i x))^k=(-exp(2pi i x)-exp(2pi i (N+1)x ) ) / ( 1 +exp(2pi i x) )
we get
sum k=1 to N+1 (-exp(2pi i x))^k=(-exp(2pi i x)-exp(2pi i (N+1)x ) ) / ( 1 +exp(2pi i x) ) + (-exp(2pi i x))^(N+1)
=(-exp(2pi i x)-exp(2pi i (N+2)x ) ) / ( 1 +exp(2pi i x) )
but since |exp(2pi i x)|=1, we don't get the second term in the numerator going to 0 as N goes to infinity, so what can we do?
Relating to another post:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=435992
I know that if I could use this equivalence about the geometric sum of complex exponentials then I would be able to say that the derivative of the Fourier series of f(x)=x on [-p/2,p/2) is 1 and thus the Fourier series converges to the function.
I suppose I could just look at this numerically to check, but I would still need some proof that this true in general.Thanks for any help.
Last edited: