- #176
Dale
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Not in general, no.jarednjames said:you have to generate that force in the first place. Which takes more energy to create the larger force.
So far, so good.jarednjames said:In both cases, the force is applied for a distance of 1m to a mass of 1kg.
At 1m/s2, force = 1*1 = 1N.
At 4m/s2, force = 4*1 = 4N.
Both forces are applied for 1m:
So the work for the first is Fd = 1*1 = 1J
And the work for the latter is Fd = 4*1 = 4J
No, the former is applied for 1.41 s and the latter for .707 s.jarednjames said:The difference is, the former is applied for 1 second, the latter for 0.25 seconds.
No, the former is 1.41 m/s and the latter is 2.83 m/s with a final KE of 1 J and 4 J respectively.jarednjames said:The resultant velocity is 1m/s in both cases with a final KE of 0.5J in both cases.
So, quadruple the force over the same distance results in half the time, twice the final velocity, and 4 times the kinetic energy. However, note that this example is rather different from your previous example:
However, you can do the same kind of analysis to confirm what I was saying.jarednjames said:Getting to 1m/s in 1s uses significantly less energy than getting to 1m/s in 0.25s.