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vanesch said:There have been numerous threads on the subject. Within the realm of accepting the empirical predictions of quantum theory, there are several viewpoints (often called interpretations) of what exactly the elements of the formalism mean, and according to the different interpretations, different answers to "does collapse really occur" are given.
The main contrasting families of interpretations are, on one side: MWI-based and on the other side, Copenhagen-style. I personally am an MWI proponent, and within this viewpoint, there is no objective collapse, but only a subjective one ; the wavefunction is supposed to describe ontological reality, and when an observer's body gets entangled with a system, different "versions" of the observer now exist, each one which experiences only one branch of the wavefunction. So, what appears empirically to be a collapse, in this viewpoint, is nothing else but the observer's body interacting with the system under study and the conscious observation of one of the terms (with a probability given by the Born rule). There's no objective collapse (the wavefunction didn't collapse) in this viewpoint, but one could call the phenomenon by which one consciously is only aware of one of its bodystates, a subjective collapse. There are several variations on this theme.
Hi Patrick. Btw, thanks for all your very interesting posts.
That brings me to a question which maybe should be in a different thread (I started a new thread with that question a short while ago but it went unnoticed). Hopwfully it won't be too rude to post it here.
Consider an EPR type of experiment between Bob and Alice, located 26 ly away (Bob is near Vega, say, with Alice here). What's the MWI view of this?
Bob measures the spin of let's say one gazillion elctrons while Alice measures the spin of the corresponding one gazillon positrons. Bob memorizes the results (he is good!) and also writes them down, giving a copy to his friend Alfred who stays on Vega. He then travels to Earth to compare his results with Alice.Of course, they find perfect correlation between there results. I know that you prefer the view that it's only when Bob and Alice meet that there is a collapse (even if it's a subjective one) and that sounds good to me. But Bob could be in any of 2 to the one gazillion states corresponding the the possible measurements he may have made.
My question is: what causes the (subjective) collapse to be the one that corresponds to the state where all his results correlate with Alice's? It seems to me that even though there is no actual collapse, the fact that the subjective collapse will be such that the results with Alice will correlate in agreement with the Copenhagen interpretation is amazing to me...I guess I am probably missing something which has to do with the subjective collapse and whether it just moves the mystery from one place to another or if it comes out in a more satisfying manner.
Of course, there is still Alfred on Vega with the list of a gazillon results (or the superposition of Alfred with the 2^gazillon lists). I guess that nothing happens to Alfred (in terms of a collapse) when Alice and Bob compare reults (?). But when Bob travales back and meets with Alfred, is there another subjective collapse (this time of Fred??) which, again, happens to be such that his list agrees exactly with the list that Bob have??
I hope this makes sense, as a question.
Thanks for all your excellent posts, once more!
Pat