Proof - the derivative of a scalar multiple

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The discussion centers on the proof of the derivative of a scalar multiple, specifically how the scalar k can be factored out in the limit process without causing issues with the limit approaching zero. The confusion arises from the belief that dividing by h while keeping k in the numerator could lead to undefined behavior as h approaches zero. However, the correct application of limits allows for k to be factored out legally, leading to the conclusion that f'(x) = k g'(x). The participants emphasize the importance of understanding limit definitions to clarify this algebraic manipulation. Ultimately, the proof is valid, and the steps taken are mathematically sound.
hayesk85
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Homework Statement



I am confused how the scalar multiple is divided out of the proof of this rule without taking an h with it in the denominator, which would get very tiny meaning the entire thing would go to infinity or negative infinity or zero, you can't tell.

Start with: f(x) = k g(x) End: f'(x) = k g'(x)



Homework Equations



This is the proof I was given:

f'(x) = lim(h->0) [k g(x+h) - k g(x)] / h

f'(x) = lim(h->0) [k {g(x+h) - g(x)}] /h

Next step I do not agree with: (Never mind -this is legal, right?)
f'(x) = lim(h->0) k [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = k lim(h->0) [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = k g'(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



This is what I think would happen at the step I disagree with:

f'(x) = lim(h->0) k/h * [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = lim(h->0) k/h * lim(h->0) [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = ? * g'(x)
 
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(k/h)*(g(x+h)-g(x))/h=(k*g(x+h)-k*g(x))/h^2. That's not equal to (k*g(x+h)-k*g(x))/h. Why would you do that?
 
Check out the presentation of the formal definition of "limit" (the "delta-epsilon" formality):
http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/53403.html"

That doesn't answer your question, I know. But it's an unusually interesting discussion of what is really meant by "limit".

jf
 
Last edited by a moderator:
hayesk85 said:

Homework Statement



I am confused how the scalar multiple is divided out of the proof of this rule without taking an h with it in the denominator, which would get very tiny meaning the entire thing would go to infinity or negative infinity or zero, you can't tell.

Start with: f(x) = k g(x) End: f'(x) = k g'(x)



Homework Equations



This is the proof I was given:

f'(x) = lim(h->0) [k g(x+h) - k g(x)] / h

f'(x) = lim(h->0) [k {g(x+h) - g(x)}] /h

Next step I do not agree with: (Never mind -this is legal, right?)
f'(x) = lim(h->0) k [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = k lim(h->0) [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]

f'(x) = k g'(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



This is what I think would happen at the step I disagree with:

f'(x) = lim(h->0) k/h * [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]
That's just bad algebra. You now have two "h" s in the denominators.

f'(x) = lim(h->0) k/h * lim(h->0) [{g(x+h) - g(x)}/h]f'(x) = ? * g'(x)
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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