- #1
morenogabr
- 29
- 0
So... I am told that mass warps the regional fabric of space and time and that any massive object in that region of curved spacetime will feel this curvature and essentially 'fall into the curvature'. The problem is that I don't exactly understand how curved spacetime implies a gravitational force.
At this point my friend goes off with the analogy of a bowling ball on a trampoline. The reason that this analogy doesn't do it for me is that is only an analogy and can only be taken so far. I can 'see' how the analogy works because I have taken mechanics and understand that a spherical object an incline with a component of force pointing down the incline will pull it down the incline. But when you get this literal with the analogy, it doesn't really commute to GR, it basically doesn't work beyond the purely abstract explanation. (This is obviously because the trampoline isn't the same thing as spacetime.) Plus the analogy seems, to me, to beg the question; the analogy uses the gravitational phenomenon to explain the gravitational phenomenon...
So again, if a graviton won't do, what is the mechanism that causes warped spacetime to create an effective force (maybe it can be called a virtual force)?
And I suppose that leads me to wonder: Does Einsteins relativity require the NON-existence of a particle-interaction explanation of gravity? If we soon find a graviton, would this disprove GR?
At this point my friend goes off with the analogy of a bowling ball on a trampoline. The reason that this analogy doesn't do it for me is that is only an analogy and can only be taken so far. I can 'see' how the analogy works because I have taken mechanics and understand that a spherical object an incline with a component of force pointing down the incline will pull it down the incline. But when you get this literal with the analogy, it doesn't really commute to GR, it basically doesn't work beyond the purely abstract explanation. (This is obviously because the trampoline isn't the same thing as spacetime.) Plus the analogy seems, to me, to beg the question; the analogy uses the gravitational phenomenon to explain the gravitational phenomenon...
So again, if a graviton won't do, what is the mechanism that causes warped spacetime to create an effective force (maybe it can be called a virtual force)?
And I suppose that leads me to wonder: Does Einsteins relativity require the NON-existence of a particle-interaction explanation of gravity? If we soon find a graviton, would this disprove GR?